New Hampshire Legislation
Section 326-D-1 Purpose. Section 326-D-2 Definitions. Section 326-D-3 Council Established. Section 326-D-4 Powers and Duties of the Council. Section 326-D-5 Rulemaking. Section 326-D-6 Certification. Section 326-D-7 Qualifications. Section 326-D-8 Disciplinary Action. Section 326-D-9 Report. Section 326-D-10 Powers and Duties of Commissioner. Section 326-D-11 Certificate Renewal; Continuing Education. Section 326-D-12 Administration of Drugs and Medications. Section 326-D-13 Reciprocity. Section 326-D-14 Exceptions. TITLE XXX
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CHAPTER Mid 100 ORGANIZATIONAL RULES
PART Mid 101 PURPOSE Mid 101.01 Purpose. These rules implement the statutory responsibilities of the New Hampshire Midwifery Council created by RSA 326-D:3. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 PART Mid 102 DEFINITIONS Mid 102.01 Definitions. (a) "Council" means "council" as defined in RSA 326-D:2, II, namely, "the midwifery council established in RSA 326-D:3". (b) "Midwifery" means "midwifery" as defined in RSA 326-D:2, V, namely, "the practice, by persons other than physicians or surgeons licensed under RSA 329, nurses registered under RSA 326-B, or physician's assistants licensed under RSA 328-D, of: (1) Providing the necessary supervision, care and advice to women during pregnancy, labor and the postpartum period; (2) Conducting vaginal deliveries on the midwife's own responsibility, and caring for the newborn and the infant; such care to mother and child to include preventive measures, the detection of abnormal conditions, the procurement of medical assistance, and the execution of emergency measures in the absence of medical help; and (3) Consulting with a physician whenever there are significant deviations from normal or whenever there is a medical emergency in either the mother or the infant." Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 PART Mid 103 DESCRIPTION OF THE COUNCIL AND COUNCIL MEETINGS Mid 103.01 Composition of the Council. The council consists of 6 members appointed pursuant to, and meeting the eligibility requirements of, RSA 326-D:3, I. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.02 Responsibilities of the Council. The council's responsibilities include, but are not limited to: (a) Establishing qualifications for certification to practice midwifery, renewal of certification and recertification after lapse of certification; (b) Issuing certificates to practice midwifery; (c) Establishing fees for the examination of applicants and for certification and renewal of certification; (d) Defining the scope of practice and procedures for the practice of midwifery in accordance with RSA 326-D:5, I(c); (e) Regulating the practice of midwifery through necessary investigations, disciplinary proceedings and disciplinary action; and (f) Reporting to the commissioner of health and human services concerning the practice of midwifery. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.03 Council Meetings and Quorum. (a) Pursuant to RSA 326-D:3, IV the council shall meet no fewer than 4 times a year and at such additional times as the council chair or a majority of the council members shall designate. (b) Pursuant to RSA 326-D:3, IV the quorum required for council meetings is 4 members. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.04 Ineligibility of Council Members to Vote On Certain Matters and Participate in Certain Deliberations. (a) A council member shall not be eligible to vote on, or participate in the council's deliberations about, matters pertaining to: (1) The member's own application for initial or renewal certification or recertification; and (2) Any matter in which the member has a personal, professional, or financial interest including, but not limited to, any matter involving: a. The member; b. The member's spouse, parent, child or business partner; or c. A business investment of the member. (b) Under the circumstances described in paragraph (a) the council member shall: (1) Promptly disclose to the council his or her interest; and (2) Recuse himself or herself from voting on, and participating in council deliberations about, the matter. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.05 Attendance at Meetings By Members of the Public. Pursuant to RSA 91-A:2, II, members of the public may attend and record council meetings, except for those parts of the meetings which are nonpublic sessions as defined in RSA 91-A:3. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.06 Notice of Meetings. (a) Notice of the time and place of council meetings, excluding emergency meetings, shall be given in accordance with RSA 91-A:2, II. (b) Information about the time and place of council meetings shall also be available by telephone at the number stated in Mid 104.01 (b). Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 103.07 Minutes of Council Meetings. (a) Minutes shall be kept of council meetings and of official actions taken by the council. (b) Such minutes shall: (1) Record the members participating in each vote; and (2) Separately record the position of members who dissent, abstain or concur. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 PART Mid 104 PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR INFORMATION Mid 104.01 Office Location and Mailing Address, Telephone Number, and Number for TTY Users. (a) The council's office location and mailing address is: NH Midwifery Council Longmeadow Farm 585 Hopkinton Road Hopkinton, New Hampshire 03229 (b) The council's telephone number is (603) 224-0049. (c) Access for TTY users is through Relay New Hampshire by calling 711. Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 104.02 Communication with the Council. (a) Persons wishing to make submissions to, or requests of, the council may mail a letter to the address stated in Mid 104.01(a), call the number stated in Mid 104.01 (b) or communicate by TTY using the number stated in Mid 104.01(c). (b) Persons seeking information from the council may do so by mail, telephone or TTY as described in paragraph (a). Source. #7412, eff 12-5-00 Mid 104.03 Public Access to Records. (a) Pursuant to RSA 91-A:4 members of the public may inspect and copy those records of the council, including meeting minutes, which are public records and not exempt from disclosure under RSA 91-A:5 or other applicable law. (b) Public records shall be inspected and copied at the office of the council at the location stated in Mid 104.01(a) during regular business hours. (c) Persons desiring copies of public records shall reasonably describe the information being sought and pay the actual cost of the copies. (d) If records are requested which contain both public and confidential information, the council shall delete the confidential information and provide the remaining information. CHAPTER Mid 200 - RESERVED CHAPTER Mid 300 CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS PART Mid 301 DEFINITIONS Mid 301.01 Definitions. (a) "ACNM" means The American College of Nurse-Midwives. (b) "Abnormal conditions" means conditions of pregnancy, birth, or postpartum outside normal parameters, with the potential for compromising the well-being of the client, the fetus or the newborn. (c) "APGAR assessment" means an evaluation of the newborn based on an assessment of the heart rate, respiration, reflexes, color and muscle tone, performed at intervals of one minute and five minutes after birth. (d) "CPR" means cardiopulmonary resuscitation. (e) "Certified midwife (CM)" means an individual who has a background in any health field other than nursing, has graduated from a midwifery education program accredited by the ACNM Division of Accreditation and has passed a national examination to become professionally designated as a CM by the ACNM Certification Council. (f) "Certified nurse-midwife (CNM)" means a registered nurse who has graduated from a nurse-midwifery education program accredited by the ACNM Division of Accreditation and has passed a national examination to become professionally designated as a CNM by the ACNM Certification Council. (g) "Certified professional midwife (CPM)" means an individual who has met the standards for certification in the practice of midwifery set by NARM and who holds such certification. (h) "Doula" means a person trained to give women information, comfort, and emotional support before, during and after birth. (i) "GED certificate" means a certificate showing that the individual to whom it was issued has passed the general educational development test of the American Council on Education.
(j) "Leopold's maneuver" means the use of 4 specific steps in palpating the uterus externally in order to determine the position of the fetus. (k) "Neonatal resuscitation program (NRP)" means a course of study in the prevention and treatment of neonatal respiratory depression which is cosponsored by the American Academy of Pediatrics and The American Heart Association. (l) "North American Registry of Midwives (NARM)" means a non-profit agency established to certify practitioners of midwifery on the basis of experience and examination.
(m) "Practicing midwives" means residents of the state who held themselves out as midwives prior to July 1, 1999 and are authorized by RSA 326-D:14, II to practice midwifery without certification until June 30, 2001. (n) "Prenatal" means during the period of time between conception and the onset of labor. (o) "Postpartum" means occurring after childbirth.
(p) "Rh(D) immune globulin" means a preparation used to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in Rh negative mothers. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 PART Mid 302 APPLICATION PROCEDURE Mid 302.01 Application Process for Initial Certification. (a) Persons who wish to be issued a first certificate to practice midwifery shall submit: (1) The application form provided by the council and described in Mid 302.03; and (2) Supporting documentation as follows: a. For applicants who are not practicing midwives as defined in Mid 301.01(m), documentation as specified by Mid 302.04; and b. For applicants who are practicing midwives as defined in Mid 301.01(m), supporting documentation as specified in Mid 302.05. (b) The application form shall be legibly completed by printing the required information in ink or by use of a typewriter. (c) All sections of the application form shall either be completed or designated as not applicable to the applicant. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 302.02 Application Review and Notification Procedure. (a) Within 60 days of the receipt of the application, the council shall: (1) Review the application form and documentation for legibility and completeness; (2) Determine whether additional information or documentation is required to clarify the application or to determine whether the applicant meets the qualifications for certification; and (3) Notify the applicant in writing of any deficiencies in the application and of any additional information or documentation required under (a)(2). (b) An application shall be deemed completed on the date when the council has received: (1) The application form required by Mid 302.01(a)(1) which has been legibly completed and signed; (2) The supporting documentation required by Mid 302.01(a)(2); and (3) Any additional information and documentation required under (a)(3). (c) Within 120 days from the completion of the application the council shall notify the applicant in writing that: (1) The applicant meets the certification qualifications of Mid 303 and will be certified upon payment of the certification fee specified in Mid 306.03; or (2) The applicant does not meet the certification qualifications of Mid 303. (d) An application for which the council is waiting for additional information or documentation shall be held open for one year from the date of its receipt by the council, after which time it shall be closed and the application denied. (e) All applications for certification shall be kept as part of the permanent records of the council. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 302.03 Application Form for Initial Certification. The information required to be provided on the application form shall be:
(a) The applicant's name, including any previously used names that appear on supporting documentation; (b) The applicant's date of birth; (c) The applicant's residence and business addresses and telephone numbers; (d) A statement by the applicant expressing intent to engage in the practice of midwifery in the state;
(e) The name and address of the high school attended by the applicant and the date of graduation, or the date of issuance of a GED certificate; (f) If applicable, a list of colleges and universities the applicant attended, the dates of attendance, and the degrees received; (g) A written description of any part of the applicant's professional background which is relevant to the practice of midwifery, such as: (1) Midwifery training or experience in any state or country; or (2) Any training or experience in the fields of newborn or maternal care, acquired in any state or country, such as obstetric or pediatric nursing, childbirth education or work as a doula; (h) A list of midwifery schools attended and, for each such school: (1) The dates attended; (2) The date of graduation; and (3) The degree, certificate, or diploma awarded; (i) A list of midwifery certifications, licenses, registrations or other permits to practice midwifery held by the applicant currently or in the past, including for each such permit: (1) The state or country of issuance; and (2) The dates of issuance and expiration; (j) A list of all certifications, licenses, registrations, or other permits to practice in a health or healing field other than midwifery, including for each such permit: (1) The state or country of issuance; and (2) The dates of issuance and expiration; (k) Disclosure of the following information, the relative seriousness of which shall be used to evaluate the fitness of the applicant to practice midwifery pursuant to Mid 303.01(f): (1) Whether a malpractice claim has been made against the applicant within the last 6 years, regardless of whether a lawsuit was filed in relation to the claim; (2) Whether the applicant has ever been denied a midwifery certificate, license, registration or permit to practice midwifery for any reason; (3) Whether the applicant's employment or appointment in a hospital, clinic or other health care facility was ever suspended; (4) Whether the applicant has ever resigned from employment or appointment in a hospital, clinic or other health care facility in lieu of being subjected to disciplinary action; (5) Whether there are pending against the applicant any disciplinary charges before any licensing authority, medical council, health care facility or professional midwifery association; (6) Whether any disciplinary action has been taken against the applicant by any licensing authority, medical council, health care facility or professional midwifery association; (7) Whether the applicant has ever voluntarily surrendered a certificate, license, registration or permit to practice midwifery or other healing art in lieu of facing disciplinary action; (8) Whether the applicant has ever had a professional certificate, license, registration or permit to practice in a field other than midwifery revoked, suspended, or otherwise terminated on disciplinary grounds; and (9) Whether the applicant currently has an emotional disturbance or mental illness, an organic illness, or an addictive disorder impairing the applicant's ability to practice midwifery; (l) A statement describing in detail the circumstances of any affirmative answers to the questions in paragraph (k); (m) A statement describing the circumstances of any conviction of a crime disclosed by any affidavit required to be submitted by Mid 302.04(g); (n) A statement describing the arrangements the applicant has made for the medical back-up which is required by Mid 303.01(g), including in the description: (1) Arrangements for coverage for clients in the event of the applicant's absence or illness; (2) Arrangements for consultation with obstetricians, family practitioners, pediatricians or any other physicians concerning abnormal conditions; (3) Arrangements for transferring the care of clients from the midwife to obstetricians, family practitioners, pediatricians or any other physicians; (4) The applicant's privileges at hospitals, professional associations with physicians, or ongoing professional relationships of medical support, if any; and (5) Identification of hospital services to be used in medical emergencies; (o) A statement describing how the applicant has met the requirements of Mid 303.01(h) that the applicant shall have made arrangements for: (1) Prenatal laboratory testing;
(2) Newborn metabolic screening; and (3) Any necessary administration of Rh(D) immune globulin; (p) The applicant's signature to a statement preprinted on the form which states that: (1) The information provided on the application form and the documentation provided to support the application are true, accurate, complete and unaltered; and (2) The applicant acknowledges that, pursuant to RSA 641:3, the knowing making of a false statement on the application form is punishable as a misdemeanor; and (q) The date of the signature described in (p). Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 302.04 Documentation Required to Support An Application for Initial Certification by Applicants Who Are Not Practicing Midwives. Applicants for a first certificate to practice midwifery who are not practicing midwives as defined in Mid 301.01(m) shall submit the following documentation at the time of application: (a) A copy of a high school diploma or a GED certificate; (b) Proof of having passed one college-level anatomy and physiology course, or proof of receipt through examination of college-level credit in anatomy and physiology; (c) Official transcripts from, or copies of diplomas received from, all colleges and universities attended, if applicable; (d) Official transcripts from all midwifery schools and colleges attended, if applicable; (e) A copy of the front and back of the applicant's current certificate in adult and infant and child CPR issued by either the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross; (f) A copy of the front and back of the applicant's current NRP provider card; (g) If applicable, a notarized affidavit disclosing criminal convictions; (h) At least 4 written references, including at least 2 from certified or licensed health care professionals familiar with the applicant's midwifery experience, and not more than one from a client, affirming the applicant's competence and high standards in providing midwifery care;
(i) The report(s) of the applicant's preceptor(s) described in Mid 303.05(b); and (j) The applicant's written statement that the applicant has met the experiential requirements of Mid 303.03(a) and the technical skill requirements of Mid 303.04. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 302.05 Documentation Required to Support an Application for Certification by Applicants Who Are Practicing Midwives. Applicants for a certificate to practice midwifery who are practicing midwives as defined in Mid 301.01(m) shall submit the following documentation at the time of application: (a) The documentation described in Mid 302.04(a) through (h); and (b) The applicant's written statement that: (1) The applicant has met the technical skill requirements of Mid 303.04; and (2) The applicant has attended at least 50 out-of-hospital births at which the applicant was the primary birth attendant. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 302.06 Procedures for Provisional Certification. - RESERVED Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 PART Mid 303 QUALIFICATIONS Mid 303.01 Qualifications for Applicants Who Are Not Practicing Midwives. To qualify for initial certification an applicant who is not a practicing midwife as defined in Mid 301.01(m) shall: (a) Have completed high school or its equivalent; (b) Have completed one college-level course in human anatomy and physiology, or received equivalent college-level credit through examination in anatomy and physiology; (c) Hold a current certificate in adult and infant and child CPR issued by either the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross; (d) Hold a current certificate as a provider of neonatal resuscitation which shows that the applicant has successfully completed at least the following modules of the NRP provider course: (1) Introduction to the program; (2) Initial steps in resuscitation; (3) Use of a resuscitation bag and mask; and (4) Chest compressions; (e) Have not been convicted of a crime involving theft, injury to others, or violence to others;
(f) Have no condition or circumstance of character or of mental or physical state that might discredit the applicant as a midwife, or prevent the applicant from the expected performance as a midwife, or both;
(g) Have made arrangements for medical back-up to support to the applicant's practice; (h) Have made arrangements for: (1) Prenatal laboratory testing;
(2) Newborn metabolic screening; and (3) Any necessary administration of Rh(D) immune globulin; (i) Have completed payment of the examination fees required by Mid 304.02; and (j) Meet the requirements of: (1) Mid 303.03(a); (2) Mid 303.04; (3) Mid 303.05; and
(4) Mid 304.01. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 303.02 Qualifications for Applicants Who Are Practicing Midwives. To qualify for initial certification an applicant who is a practicing midwife as defined in Mid 301.01(m) shall meet the requirements of: (a) Mid 303.01(a) through (i); (b) Mid 303.03(b); (c) Mid 303.04; and (d) Mid 304.01. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 303.03 Experiential Requirements. (a) An applicant who is not a practicing midwife as defined in Mid 301.01(m) shall, within 5 years prior to the date of application, have achieved the following under a preceptorship as described in Mid 303.05:
(1) Performed at least 100 prenatal visits on at least 15 different clients, including at least 5 prenatal visits and postpartum follow-up on each of 10 clients; (2) Attended at least 25 live out-of-hospital births as an observer or person assisting the midwife; (3) Attended at least 25 live out-of-hospital births at which the applicant was the primary birth attendant; (4) Observed at least 5 in-hospital births, which may include births of clients who were transferred by the midwife preceptor from a home or freestanding birthing center location to a hospital facility during labor; (5) Performed at least 25 newborn examinations; (6) Performed at least 5 repairs of lacerations; and (7) Performed at least 30 postpartum home or office visits. (b) An applicant who is a practicing midwife shall have attended at least 50 out-of-hospital births at which the applicant was the primary birth attendant.
Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 303.04 Technical Skill Requirements. An applicant shall, at the time of application, be proficient in the following technical skills: (a) Hand washing; (b) Gloving and ungloving; (c) Sterile technique; (d) Sterilization of instruments; (e) Maternal vital signs assessment; (f) Oxygen set-up and administration to mother and newborn; (g) Treatment of shock; (h) Standard precautions, otherwise known as universal precautions; (i) Prenatal history-taking; (j) Anemia screening; (k) Obtaining clean catch urine samples and performing dipstick analysis; (l) Breast exam and assessment for breastfeeding; (m) Testing of the deep tendon reflexes of the knee; (n) Basic physical examination;
(o) Pelvic and speculum examination including pap smears and obtaining cervical specimens for sexually transmitted disease testing; (p) Uterine size, fundal height, and fetal age assessment; (q) Pelvic measurements; (r) Leopold's maneuver; (s) Fetal activity testing; (t) Intrapartum pelvic examination and assessment of progression of labor; (u) Assessment of contractions and fetal heart rate pattern; (v) Delivery maneuvers; (w) Management of nuchal cord, hand, and arm; (x) Newborn suction and resuscitation; (y) Postpartum maternal assessment; (z) Delivery and assessment of the placenta; (aa) Estimation of blood loss; (ab) Postpartum hemorrhage management; (ac) Assessment and repair of lacerations; (ad) Postpartum examination of the mother; (ae) Immediate care of the newborn; (af) Clamping and cutting of the cord; (ag) Newborn examination; (ah) APGAR assessment; (ai) Newborn eye prophylaxis; (aj) Newborn metabolic screening; (ak) Assessment of jaundice in the newborn; (al) Straight urethral catheterization; (am) Intramuscular injection; (an) Venipuncture; (ao) Administration of intravenous fluids; (ap) Episiotomy and repair; and (aq) Obtaining wet mount slide specimen and the use of the microscope.
Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 303.05 Preceptorship Requirement for Applicants Who Are Not Practicing Midwives. (a) Each applicant, except a practicing midwife as defined in Mid 301.01(m), shall have had, within the 5 years prior to the date of application, at least one preceptor who:
(1) Was, at the time of the preceptorship: a. A midwife certified in this state; b. The holder of a license, certificate, permit or other approval to practice midwifery issued by any state, foreign country or province of a foreign country; c. A CPM;
d. A CNM; e. A CM;
f. A physician with experience in the active practice of obstetrics and licensed in any state, foreign country or province of a foreign country; or g. A person who had attended, within a time period of at least 3 years, at least 50 out-of-hospital births at which that person was the primary birth attendant; and (2) Had the responsibility to provide the applicant with individualized instruction, close supervision and ongoing evaluation during the applicant's participation in the experiences set forth in Mid 303.03(a) and during the applicant's learning of the skills set forth in Mid 303.04. (b) Each applicant, except a practicing midwife, shall have obtained, from the applicant's preceptor(s), a report which: (1) Bears the name and original signature of the preceptor; (2) States the licenses and certifications held by the preceptor during the period of the preceptor's instruction, supervision and evaluation of the applicant in accordance with (a)(2); (3) States the address of the preceptor's practice during the period of the preceptor's instruction, supervision and evaluation of the applicant in accordance with (a)(2); (4) States which of the experiential requirements set forth in Mid 303.03(a) were achieved by the applicant during the period of the preceptor's instruction, supervision and evaluation of the applicant in accordance with (a)(2); and (5) States which of the technical skills set forth in Mid 303.04 were mastered by the applicant during the period of the preceptor's instruction, supervision and evaluation of the applicant in accordance with (a)(2). Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 PART Mid 304 EXAMINATIONS AND EXAMINATION FEES
Mid 304.01 Examination Requirements. (a) As a condition of certification, the applicant shall pass the following examinations in the order in which they are described in this section: (1) The NARM written examination for certification as a CPM; (2) A written examination which shall: a. Test the applicant's knowledge of RSA 326-D and these rules; b. Be composed of multiple choice questions; and c. Be administered by the midwifery council; and (3) An oral examination as set forth in (b). (b) As a condition of certification an applicant shall pass an oral examination which: (1) Assesses the applicant's: a. Clinical midwifery skills; b. Knowledge about and ability to manage abnormal conditions in a midwifery client; c. Knowledge about and ability to manage medical emergencies relevant to the practice of midwifery; and d. Knowledge of pharmaceuticals permitted to be used in the practice of midwifery; (2) Utilizes questions standardized to avoid bias and variations in difficulty among different administrations of the examination; and (3) Is administered by a panel of at least 3 council members including the obstetrician member and at least one midwife certified in the state, but not the consumer member.
(c) The standard for passing the examinations described in (a)(2) and (b) shall be a score of 80% correct answers. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 304.02 Examination Fees. Before taking or retaking the written examination described in Mid 304.01(a)(2) or the oral examination described in Mid 304.01(b), the applicant shall pay the applicable non-refundable examination fee set forth in Mid 306.03. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 304.03 Election to Retake Examinations. An applicant who has failed the examination described in Mid 304.01(a)(2), the examination described in Mid 304.01(b) or both, shall have the opportunity to retake each failed examination: (a) No more than twice ever; and (b) No sooner than 6 months after the applicant last failed the examination being retaken. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 304.04 Notification of Examination Results. The council shall notify the applicant of examination results on the following schedule: (a) For the NARM written examination, within 15 days of the notification to the council of the examination results by NARM; (b) For the written examination administered by the council, within 15 days of the date of administration; and (c) For the oral examination administered by the council, within 7 days of the date of administration. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 PART Mid 305 CERTIFICATION BASED ON RECIPROCITY Mid 305.01 Qualifications for Certification Based on Reciprocity. A person currently licensed, certified, permitted or otherwise approved to practice midwifery in another state shall be certified on the basis of reciprocity if he or she: (a) Is a certified professional midwife; (b) Meets the qualifications set forth in Mid 303.01(a)-(h); (c) Has met the experiential requirements of Mid 303.03(a); (d) Has passed with a score of at least 80% correct answers the examination described in Mid 304.01(a)(2); and (e) Has paid the examination and certification fees set forth in Table 3-1 of Mid 306.03. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 305.02 Meeting Requirements for Certification Based on Reciprocity. If a person seeking certification on the basis of reciprocity has not at the time of application met the experiential requirements of Mid 303.03(a), he or she shall: (a) Not be eligible to take the examination described in Mid 304.01(a)(2) until he or she has met the experiential requirements; and (b) Acquire the experiences in which he or she is deficient under the direction of one or more preceptors who shall: (1) Meet the qualifications for a preceptor set forth in Mid 303.05(a)(1); (2) Carry out the responsibilities of a preceptor set forth in Mid 303.05(a)(2); and (3) Provide the report described in Mid 303.05(b). Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 305.03 Application Process for Certification Based on Reciprocity. A person applying to be certified pursuant to Mid 305.01 shall: (a) Complete the application form described in Mid 302.03: (1) By printing legibly in ink or by use of a typewriter; and (2) Completing every section or designating the section as not applicable; (b) Submit the following documentation: (1) A copy of a high school diploma or a GED certificate; (2) Proof of having passed one college-level anatomy and physiology course, or proof of receipt through examination of college-level credit in anatomy and physiology; (3) A photocopy of the front and back of the applicant's current certificate in adult and infant and child CPR issued by either the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross; (4) A photocopy of the front and back of the applicant's current NRP provider card; (5) If applicable, a notarized affidavit disclosing criminal convictions; (6) At least 4 written references, including at least 2 from certified or licensed health care professionals familiar with the applicant's midwifery experience, and not more than one from a client, affirming the applicant's competence and high standards in providing midwifery care; (7) If required to acquire experiences pursuant to Mid 305.02, submit one or more preceptor reports as described in Mid 303.05(b); and (8) If not required to acquire experiences pursuant to Mid 305.02, submit a statement that the applicant has met the experiential requirements of Mid 303.03(a); (c) Arrange for the submission by the state issuing the current license, certificate, permit or other approval copies of the following documents: (1) The current license, certificate or permit or other document of approval; and (2) All application materials, including any preceptor's report, submitted at the time of application for such license, certificate, permit or other approval; and (d) Submit a copy of the midwifery statute and regulations of the state issuing such license, certificate, permit or approval. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 305.04 Review of Application Based on Reciprocity and Notification Procedure. (a) Within 60 days of the receipt of the application, the council shall: (1) Review the application form and documentation for legibility and completeness; (2) Determine whether additional information or documentation is required to clarify the application or to determine whether the applicant meets the qualifications for certification; and (3) Notify the applicant in writing of any deficiencies in the application and of any additional information or documentation required under (a)(2). (b) An application shall be deemed completed on the date when the council has received: (1) The application form required by Mid 305.03(a) which has been legibly completed and signed; (2) The supporting documentation required by Mid 305.03(b); and (3) Any additional information and documentation required under (a)(3). (c) Within 120 days from the completion of the application, the council shall notify the applicant in writing that: (1) The applicant meets the certification qualifications of Mid 305.01 and will be certified upon payment of the certification fee specified in Mid 306.03; or (2) The applicant does not meet the certification qualifications of Mid 305.01. (d) An application for which the council is waiting for additional information or documentation shall be held open for one year from the date of its receipt by the council, after which time it shall be closed and the application denied. (e) All applications for certification based on reciprocity shall be kept as part of the permanent records of the council. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 PART Mid 306 DURATION OF CERTIFICATIONS AND FEES Mid 306.01 Duration of Certifications. The duration of certifications shall be as set forth in Table 3-1. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01 Mid 306.02 Certification Fee. No applicant for initial certification or certification based on reciprocity shall be certified before the applicant has paid the certification fee specified in Mid 306.03. Source. #7421, eff 1-3-01
Mid 306.03 Fee Schedule. Fees shall be as set forth in Table 3-1.
Table 3-1 Duration of Certifications and Fees for Examinations and Certifications
CHAPTER Mid 400 - RESERVED CHAPTER Mid 500 SCOPE OF MIDWIFERY PRACTICE PART Mid 501 DEFINITIONS Mid 501.01 Definitions. (a) "The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)" means a fellowship of physicians with special interest in obstetrics and gynecology and the promotion of women's reproductive health care. (b) "Apgar assessment" means an evaluation of the newborn based on an assessment of the heart rate, respiration, reflexes, color and muscle tone, performed at intervals of one minute and 5 minutes after birth. (c) "Apgar score" means a numerical expression of the results of an Apgar assessment. (d) "Central cyanosis" means a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes involving the whole body and resulting from a lack of oxygen in the blood. (e) "Certified nurse-midwife (CNM)" means a registered nurse who has graduated from a nurse-midwifery education program accredited by the Division of Accreditation of the American College of Nurse-Midwives and has successfully taken the national examination required for designation as a CNM by the Certification Council of the American College of Nurse-Midwives. (f) "Extended postpartum period" means the period from the birth of the newborn to 3 months after the birth. (g) Fetal heart auscultation" means listening to the fetal heartbeat through the abdominal and uterine walls of the mother. (h) "Freestanding birth center" means an out-patient maternity care facility. (i) "Grand multiparity" means the condition of having borne 7 or more children. (j) "High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HGSIL)" means squamous cells that are highly suggestive of being pre-cancerous or pre-invasive cancerous. (k) "Holistic care" means care which attends to the needs of the client in all areas, including physical, emotional, social, spiritual and economic. (l) "Home birth" means a planned home delivery attended by a midwife taking primary responsibility for the care of the mother and the newborn. (m) "Immediate postpartum period" means the period from birth until the midwife determines that mother and newborn are in stable condition. (n) "Incompetent cervix" means the premature painless dilatation of the cervix typically at 24 to 26 weeks gestation, which, without medical intervention, is often associated with repeated second trimester spontaneous abortion. (o) "Intrapartum" means the period from the onset of labor to its termination with the delivery of the placenta. (p) "Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)" means a decreased rate of growth of the fetus. (q) "Large for gestational age (LGA)" means a newborn weighing over 9 pounds, 8 ounces. (r) "Multigravida" means a woman who has been pregnant 2 or more times. (s) "Oligohydramnios" means an abnormally small amount of amniotic fluid during pregnancy. (t) "Out-of-hospital birth" means a home birth or a birth in a freestanding birth center. (u) "Pap smear" means a procedure by which cells are obtained from the cervix and prepared on a slide to be tested in a laboratory for cancer and other abnormal conditions. (w) "Placenta previa" means the condition whereby the placenta is implanted in the lower portion of the uterus, covering the cervix marginally, partially, or completely. (x) "Placental abruption" means premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. (y) "Polyhydramnios" means an excess of amniotic fluid during pregnancy. (z) "Preeclampsia" means a combination in the mother of hypertension, fluid retention, protein in the urine and brisk reflexes. (aa) "Primigravida" means a woman who is pregnant for the first time. (ab) "Prenatal" means during the period of time between conception and the onset of labor. (ac) "Postpartum" means occurring after childbirth. (ad) "Rh immune globulin" means a preparation used to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in Rh negative mothers. (ae) "Rh sensitivity with positive antibody titre" means the development by a pregnant Rh negative woman of antibodies which might cross the placenta and destroy the cells of an Rh positive fetus. (af) "Small for gestational age (SGA)" means a newborn weighing less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces. (ag) "Squamous cells" means flat, scaly cells forming the outer surface of the body and lining the body cavities and the principal tubes and passageways leading to the exterior of the body. (ah) "Vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)" means a vaginal birth after any previous delivery by cesarean section. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 PART Mid 502 SCOPE OF PRACTICE Mid 502.01 Midwifery Care. Acting autonomously, a midwife shall provide the following supervision, care and advice, as appropriate, to her client and the newborn: (a) Counseling and education about: (1) Conception; (2) Health and nutrition; (3) Pregnancy; (4) Lactation; (5) Family planning; and (6) The postpartum period; (b) Holistic care; (c) Early recognition and prevention of potential health problems; (d) Detection of any abnormal conditions in the mother, fetus, and newborn; (e) Procurement of medical assistance, if necessary; (f) Execution of emergency measures in the absence of medical help, if necessary; and (g) Lactation assistance. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.02 Midwifery Procedures. The procedures of midwifery shall include, as appropriate, the following: (a) Basic physical examination; (b) Breast examination; (c) Pelvic examination; (d) Venipuncture; (e) Hematocrit and hemoglobin specimen collection; (f) Capillary blood collection; (g) The taking of a Pap smear; (h) Cervical culture collection; (i) Urinalysis; (j) Wet mount specimen collection; (k) Administration of oxygen to mother and newborn; (l) Urinary bladder catherization; (m) Episiotomy; (n) Neonatal resuscitation; (o) Repair of tears, lacerations or episiotomy, infiltration of lidocaine hydrochloride and use of suture material; (p) Intramuscular injection of the following medications: (1) Oxytocins such as pitocin, ergotrate and methergine, only for postpartum control of maternal hemorrhage; (2) Rh immune globulin, if indicated; (3) Vitamin K for control and prevention of acute and late-onset hemorrhagic disease of the newborn; and (4) Other medications as prescribed by a physician, consistent with the scope of midwifery practice as defined in this chapter; (q) Oral administration of the following medications: (1) Methergine, only for postpartum control of maternal hemorrhage; (2) Vitamin K, for control and prevention of acute and late-onset hemorrhagic disease of the newborn; and (3) Other medications as prescribed by a physician, consistent with the scope of midwifery practice as defined in this chapter; (r) Intravenous administration of the following fluids: (1) Ringer's Lactate, with or without D5W; (2) Normosol-R, with or without D5W; and (3) Other medications as prescribed by a physician, consistent with the scope of midwifery practice as defined in this chapter; (s) Clamping and cutting of the umbilical cord; (t) Administration of newborn eye prophylaxis in accordance with RSA 132:6, I; (u) Metabolic screening of the newborn in accordance with RSA 132:10-a and RSA 132:10-c; and (v) Contraception counseling and family planning methods. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.03 Requirements for Prenatal Care. (a) A midwife shall provide prenatal care to a client at least: (1) Once a month through the twenty-eighth week of pregnancy; (2) Once every 2 weeks from the twenty-eighth through the thirty-sixth week of pregnancy; and (3) Once a week from the thirty-sixth week of pregnancy until the onset of labor. (b) A midwife shall schedule the initial prenatal visit with a client in the first or second trimester of pregnancy. (c) If a woman requesting midwifery services does not contact the midwife before the third trimester of her pregnancy, the midwife shall accept her as a client only if she: (1) Has had adequate prenatal care; (2) Has had adequate nutritional intake; (3) Displays adequate fetal growth, fetal heart rate and fetal movement; and (4) Is herself in apparent good health. (d) During the initial prenatal visit the midwife shall: (1) Obtain a maternal health, obstetrical and gynecological history; (2) Perform a nutritional assessment and provide nutritional counseling; (3) Discuss the availability of options for testing for fetal defects; (4) Obtain blood pressure; (5) Perform a pelvic exam, including: a. Uterine sizing to estimate gestational age; b. Pelvic size assessment; c. A chlamydia and gonorrhea screening test; and d. A Pap smear, if none was done in the previous one year period; (6) Either perform or arrange for blood analysis, including: a. Blood group and Rh factor; b. Antibody screen; c. A complete blood count; d. Rubella titre; e. Syphilis serology; f. Hepatitis B surface antigen; g. Hepatitis C surface antigen, if indicated; and h. HIV testing, if accepted by the client; (7) Recommend that the client receive a general physical exam by a qualified health care provider to screen for general health problems that have the potential to complicate the pregnancy or delivery; and (8) Obtain informed consent for midwifery care and out-of-hospital birth, to include the information described in Mid 405.02 as well as the following information: a. A description of the midwife's background and credentials; b. Whether the midwife has professional liability coverage; and c. The address and telephone number of the council, where complaints against the midwife may be filed. (e) During subsequent prenatal visits the midwife shall: (1) Assess maternal nutrition and weight gain; (2) Obtain blood pressure; (3) Test urine for protein and glucose; (4) Assess general well-being; (5) Check for signs and symptoms of edema, bleeding, headache, visual disturbances or unusual vaginal discharge; (6) Obtain fundal height measurement; (7) Arrange for periodic hematocrit or hemoglobin testing; (8) Assess fetal heart rate and fetal activity; (9) Assess position and presentation of the fetus; (10) Perform or arrange for the following as necessary: a. Rh antibody screening; b. Urinalysis; c. Microscopic analysis of vaginal discharges; d. Obstetric ultrasound; e. Prophylactic Rh immune globulin injection; f. Blood sugar screening; and g. Vaginal culture, rectal culture or both; (11) Observe aseptic technique and universal health precautions; and (12) Discuss: a. Any recent illnesses, symptoms, social or emotional problems; b. Diet; c. Supplements; d. Reading suggestions; e. Exercise; f. Rest and sleep requirements; g. Sexuality; h. Partner's role; i. Birth preparation; j. Newborn care; k. Parenting; and l. Transportation arrangements. (f) A midwife shall advise any client with genital herpes of the ACOG herpes protocol current at the time of the midwife's conversation with the client. (g) A midwife shall discuss with clients the options for testing for and treating group B streptococcus. (h) A midwife shall encourage any client expecting a first child to attend childbirth education classes. (i) A midwife shall discuss with the client, during the prenatal period, the selection of a pediatrician, family physician, or other health care provider who will assume care of the newborn. (j) A midwife shall alert the client to: (1) Signs of complications that necessitate immediate contact with the midwife; and (2) Signs of labor and of when it is time to call the midwife. (k) A midwife shall be on call or make specific arrangements for on call coverage with another midwife or licensed health care provider whose scope of practice includes birth. (l) In the third trimester, a midwife shall ensure that a client is adequately preparing for birth in an out-of-hospital location by discussing: (1) The place of the birth and the facilities available there; (2) The availability of adequate heat and water; (3) The supplies the client must procure; (4) The availability of a telephone; (5) Arrangements for help after the birth; (6) With a client preparing for birth in a private home, the importance of keeping readily available the following written information: a. The name, location and phone number of the nearest ambulance service; b. The name, location and phone number of the nearest hospital; c. The name and phone number of the newborn's health care provider; and d. The street address of the location of the birth and directions to that location from the nearest ambulance service; and (7) The transfer of care to a hospital setting in an emergency. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.04 Requirements for Care throughout Labor, Birth and The Immediate Postpartum Period. (a) During the appropriate period of labor, birth, and the immediate postpartum period a midwife shall: (1) Monitor the condition of the mother and fetus or newborn; (2) Support and encourage the laboring woman; (3) Assist with the birth; (4) Assist client with breastfeeding; (5) Inspect the perineum and lower vagina; (6) Inspect as necessary the cervix and upper vaginal vault; (7) Make necessary laceration repairs; (8) Examine and assess the health of the newborn; (9) Inspect the placenta, membranes and vessels of the umbilical cord; (10) Manage any third-stage bleeding; (11) Administer medications listed in RSA 326-D:12 as needed; (12) Administer eye prophylaxis to the newborn in accordance with RSA 132:6, I; (13) Administer vitamin K to the newborn; (14) Remain with the client and newborn: a. At least 2 hours after the birth; and b. If the conditions of the mother and the newborn are not stable after 2 hours, until the conditions of the mother and the newborn have become stable; (15) Provide the client with information concerning routine postpartum care of the mother and infant, including information on breastfeeding and perinatal care, and indications that warrant contacting the midwife or physician; (16) Recommend to the client that she contact the newborn's health care provider to arrange for an examination within 24 to 48 hours after birth; and (17) Observe aseptic technique and use universal health precautions. (b) The midwife shall not end the immediate postpartum period by determining that the mother and newborn are in stable condition for at least 2 hours after the birth. (c) In the event the client is transferred to a hospital setting, a midwife shall make every effort to remain with her to provide labor support. (d) In the event of an emergency transfer, the midwife shall notify the obstetrician on call at the accepting hospital of the nature of the emergency and the estimated time of arrival of the client. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.05 Consultation With Physician to Determine Setting for Care During the Intrapartum Period. A midwife shall consult immediately with a physician with experience in the active practice of obstetrics or a CNM about whether the care of the client should be transferred to the hospital setting if any of the following conditions should occur intrapartum: (a) Unforeseen malpresentations; (b) Unforeseen multiple fetuses; (c) Fetal distress as indicated by heart rate monitoring; (d) The presence of particulate meconium; (e) Failure to progress such that: (1) In the first stage of labor, there is a lack of progress in dilation and descent for a period of up to 24 hours in the case of a primigravida or 18 hours in the case of a multigravida; (2) In the second stage, there are more than 2 hours without progress in descent or more than 3 hours with slow descent; or (3) In the third stage, there is more than one hour without delivery of the placenta; (f) More than 18 hours elapse following the rupture of the membranes without the onset of labor; (g) Maternal distress including: (1) Extreme physical or mental exhaustion; and (2) Abnormal vital signs; and (h) Uncontrolled maternal bleeding. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.06 Consultation to Determine Setting for Care During the Immediate Postpartum Period. A midwife shall consult immediately with a physician with experience in the active practice of obstetrics or with a CNM about whether the care of the client or the newborn should be transferred to the hospital setting if any of the following conditions should occur immediately postpartum: (a) Significant bleeding cervical lacerations; (b) Third or fourth degree perineal lacerations; (c) Uncontrolled maternal bleeding when the condition of the woman is becoming unstable; (d) An Apgar score of 6 or less at 5 minutes after birth, or an Apgar score that is dropping; (e) Jaundice in the newborn appearing before 24 hours after birth; (f) Obvious congenital anomalies; (g) A newborn who is SGA; (h) A newborn who shows signs of hypoglycemia, such as jitteriness, lethargy or hypothermia; (i) A newborn with persistent central cyanosis or pallor; (j) A newborn with persistent signs of respiratory difficulty without signs of improvement within one hour after birth; (k) A newborn with a pulse rate greater than 160 at rest; (l) A newborn with respirations greater than 80 at rest; (m) A newborn with temperature outside the parameters of 97.7-99.4 degrees fahrenheit or 36.5 to 37.5 degrees celsius; or (n) Other conditions which the midwife assesses as outside normal limits. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.07 Requirements for Care During the Extended Postpartum Period. During the extended postpartum period, a midwife shall: (a) Maintain close contact with the client through phone calls and at least one home or office visit within the first 72 hours after the birth; (b) Ascertain during the visit described in (a) above that: (1) The newborn is alert; (2) The newborn has good color; (3) The newborn is breathing normally; (4) The newborn is establishing a healthy pattern of waking, sleeping, feeding, voiding and stooling; (5) The mother is not bleeding excessively; (6) The mother has a firm fundus; (7) The mother does not have a fever or other sign of infection; (8) The mother is voiding properly; and (9) The mother, if intending and able to do so, is establishing successful breastfeeding; (c) Consult with a physician if any of the circumstances in paragraph (b) are not present; (d) Be available to consult with the newborn's health care provider about the newborn's condition; (e) Recommend that the client arrange for newborn hearing screening; (f) Test the newborn for metabolic disorders as required by RSA 132:10-a at 24 to 72 hours after birth; and (g) By 6 weeks postpartum provide the following: (1) A pelvic exam and Pap smear if one was not done at the initial visit of the client with the midwife; (2) Hemoglobin or hematocrit testing; (3) Contraceptive counseling and family planning methods; and (4) Referral for rubella vaccination if the client showed no immunity to rubella when tested at the time of her initial visit with the midwife. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.08 Ineligibility for Midwifery Care. A midwife shall not accept as a client a woman who appears to have or reports any of the following: (a) Insulin- or drug-dependent diabetes; (b) Maintenance on anti-epileptic medication; (c) Convulsive activity within the past year; (d) Blood diseases that could complicate pregnancy; (e) Current hepatitis B and C positive antigen; (f) Current HIV positivity or AIDS; (g) Current chemical dependency or substance abuse; (h) Chronic pulmonary disease that interferes with oxygen saturation; (i) Rh sensitivity with positive antibody titre; (j) Chronic hypertension; (k) History of significant heart disease; (l) Renal disease; (m) Maintenance on a psychotropic medication which the client's physician has determined has the potential to sedate the newborn; (n) Documented mental illness or disease which has the potential to interfere with the client's ability to effectively participate in her care or in out-of-hospital birth; (o) Diseases and disorders such as: (1) Addison's disease; (2) Cushing's disease; (3) Systemic lupus erythematosus; (4) Anti-phospholipid syndrome; (5) Scleroderma; (6) Rheumatoid arthritis; (7) Periarteritis nodosa; (8) Marfan's syndrome; and (9) Other systemic and rare diseases and disorders; (p) Acute toxoplasmosis infection, where the client is currently symptomatic; (q) Acute rubella infections, where the client is currently symptomatic; (r) Acute cytomegalovirus infection, where the client is currently symptomatic; (s) Acute parvovirus infection, where the client is currently symptomatic; (t) Thrombosis; or (u) Inflammatory bowel disease that is not in remission. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.09 Obstetrical Consultation Required To Determine Eligibility for Midwifery Care. A midwife shall consult with an obstetrician to evaluate whether a woman is an appropriate candidate for out-of-hospital birth when she or her fetus, as applicable, appears to have or develops any of the following conditions: (a) A first pregnancy at an age younger than 16 or older than 40; (b) Maintenance on anti-epileptic medications without a history of convulsions in the previous year; (c) Hypertension measured at 140/90 or at an elevation over previously established baseline of 30 systolic, 15 diastolic, or both, on at least 2 occasions 6 hours apart; (d) An arrhythmia or a heart murmur other than a benign, functional murmur; (e) A history of hereditary problems with the potential to affect the fetus or newborn; (f) A history of significant postpartum hemorrhage; (g) A history of previous intrauterine death of a fetus of more than 20 weeks' gestation; (h) A history of stillbirth; (i) A history of prior obstetrical problems including: (1) Prematurity; (2) Uterine abnormalities; (3) Placental abruption; and (4) Incompetent cervix; (j) The possibility of a cancerous or pre-cancerous condition of the cervix as indicated by an abnormal Pap smear; (k) Recurrent urinary tract or kidney infection; (l) Active gonorrhea; (m) Active chlamydia; (n) A positive cervical herpes culture; (o) The possibility of gestational diabetes; (p) Second or third-trimester bleeding; (q) Grand multiparity; (r) The possibility of multiple fetuses; (s) The possibility of malpresentation; (t) The possibility of the fetus' being small for gestational age or developing IUGR; (u) The possibility of fetus' being large for gestational age; (v) Polyhydramnios; (w) Oligohydramnios; (x) Ultrasound evidence of a fetal or placental abnormality; or (y) Suspected postmaturity greater than 42 weeks' gestation. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.10 Conditions Requiring Transfer From Midwifery Care. (a) A midwife shall transfer to the care of a physician with experience in the active practice of obstetrics or a CNM any client who appears to have or develops any of the following conditions during the prenatal period: (1) Anemia measured by hemoglobin of less than 10g or a hematocrit of less than 30% unresolved by 37 weeks' gestation; (2) Multiple fetuses; (3) Malpresentation of the fetus, including presentation in breech position, that is not resolved before the onset of labor; (4) Confirmation by obstetric ultrasound that the fetus is small for gestational age; (5) Indications that the fetus of more than 12 weeks' gestation has died in utero; (6) Rh sensitization with positive antibody titre; (7) Preeclampsia; (8) Placenta previa; (9) Placental abruption; (10) Onset of labor prior to 37 weeks; or (11) Herpes on the cervix or vulva or in the vaginal mucosa that is active at the onset of labor and cannot be isolated by covering it. (b) Upon transfer of the client's care pursuant to paragraph (a) the midwife shall give the health care provider to whose care the client is transferred a copy of the client's chart. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 Mid 502.11 Termination of Services by the Midwife. (a) During the prenatal period a midwife shall terminate services if: (1) The client refuses the transfer of her care as required by Mid 502.10; (2) The client consistently fails or refuses to follow the recommendations of the midwife; or (3) The environment for home birth becomes unsafe or unsanitary. (b) A midwife terminating services during the prenatal period shall immediately notify the client in person or by phone, and follow-up with written notification of the termination. (c) A midwife terminating services during the prenatal period shall assist the client in finding another health care provider. (d) After the onset of labor a midwife shall terminate her services only if: (1) The client refuses a transfer of care determined necessary on the basis of the consultation required by Mid 502.05; or (2) The midwife believes she is unable to care adequately for the client or the newborn. (e) A midwife terminating services after the onset of labor shall: (1) Document the events causing the termination; and (2) Attempt to ensure that the client is not left unattended by: a. Contacting a local rescue service, a hospital emergency room or other appropriate emergency resource; b. Dialing 911; or c. Calling a physician who is on call at the nearest hospital and has experience in the active practice of obstetrics to inform the physician of the situation. Source. #7759, eff 9-7-02 |
PART Mid 503 MIDWIFERY CARE WHEN A PREVIOUS DELIVERY WAS BY CESAREAN SECTION - RESERVED
Adopt Mid 503 to read as follows:
PART Mid 503 MIDWIFERY CARE WHEN PREVIOUS BIRTH WAS BY CESAREAN SECTION
Mid 503.01 Definitions. In this part the following terms shall have the following meanings:
(a) "Active labor" means the period of labor beginning when the cervix is at least 4 cm dilated and the client is experiencing regular and painful uterine contractions until the cervix is fully dilated;
(b) "Northern New England Perinatal Quality Improvement Network (NNEPQIN)" means a consortium of medical and administrative representatives from hospitals across New Hampshire and Vermont having the goal of improving perinatal health throughout Northern New England;
(c) "Second stage of labor" means the period of labor from the time the cervix is fully dilated and the client begins expulsive efforts until the birth of the baby; and
(d) "Third stage of labor" means the period of labor from the birth of the baby until the delivery of the placenta.
Mid 503.02 Eligibility for Midwifery Care. A midwife shall accept as a client a woman who has had a previous birth by cesarean section only if:
(a) The potential client has had only one previous cesarean section;
(b) The midwife can confirm through a review of the records of the previous delivery by cesarean section that the section was performed through a low transverse uterine segment incision;
(c) The potential client has had no other uterine surgeries;
(d) At least 18 months' time separates the date of the potential client's previous cesarean section and the due date of the current pregnancy;
(e) An obstetric ultrasound documents that the placenta is not in a low-lying anterior position;
(f) The potential client plans to give birth in a location no more than 20 minutes' drive from a hospital with obstetrical and anesthesia services on call 24 hours a day;
(g) The midwife:
(1) Arranges a consultation between the client and an obstetrician affiliated with the hospital closest to the planned location of the birth to discuss the following topics:
a. The information in NNEPQIN's patient education brochure entitled "Birth Choices After Cesarean Section"; and
b. The hospital's abilities to respond if an emergency transfer from the care of the midwife to the hospital should become necessary; or
(2) Having been refused a consultation for the potential client by every obstetrician affiliated with the hospital closest to the planned location of the birth, records that fact in the potential client's record;
(h) The midwife provides the potential client with the information required by Mid 503.04; and
(i) The midwife obtains the potential client's signature and date of signing on the informed consent form specified in Mid 503.05.
Mid 503.03 Duties of the Midwife. A midwife attending a woman who has had a previous birth by cesarean section shall:
(a) Provide all services required by this chapter;
(b) Monitor the fetal heart rate at least every 15 minutes during active labor;
(c) Monitor the fetal heart rate at least every 5 minutes during the second stage of labor;
(d) Monitor the client during labor for excessive vaginal bleeding;
(e) Monitor the client during labor for abnormal abdominal pain;
(f) Monitor the labor for failure to progress as indicated by the following:
(1) During active labor, the passage of at least 2 hours without cervical change;
(2) In the second stage of labor, the passage of at least one hour without progress in descent of the head or the passage of at least 2 hours with slow progress in descent of the head; or
(3) In the third stage, the passage of at least one hour without delivery of the placenta;
(g) Consult immediately with an obstetrician if any of the circumstances listed in
(f) above occur;
(h) Transfer the client to the hospital identified pursuant to Mid 503.02(f) when any of the following occur:
(1) Repeated fetal heart rate abnormalities;
(2) Unstable vital signs;
(3) Significant bleeding; or
(4) Abdominal pain experienced by the client which is inconsistent with the normal pain of labor; and
(i) In the event of an emergency transfer to a hospital, immediately notify the hospital to which the client is to be transferred of the nature of the emergency and the estimated time of arrival of the client.
Mid 503.04 Midwife's Duty to Provide Potential Client with Information. Before obtaining a potential VBAC client's signature and the date of the signature on the informed consent form described in Mid 503.05 a midwife shall:
(a) Provide her with NNEPQIN's patient education brochure describing in-hospital VBAC and entitled "Birth Choices After Cesarean Section";
(b) Provide her with NNEPQIN's informed consent form, excluding the signature page, related to in-hospital VBAC and entitled "Consent for Birth After Cesarean Section";
(c) Provide her with a copy of Mid 503;
(d) Discuss with the potential client the following:
(1) That out-of-hospital VBAC involves labor and delivery at home or in a freestanding birth center with a midwife certified in this state in attendance in either case;
(2) As part of a review of Mid 503:
a. The midwife's obligation to comply with Mid 503;
b. The potential client's eligibility for out-of-hospital VBAC pursuant to Mid 503.02; and
c. How the midwife would carry out the duties set forth in Mid 503.03 if the potential client were to choose out-of-hospital VBAC;
(3) The normal risks of labor and of VBAC in any setting, including the risk of uterine rupture during labor;
(4) The risks associated with out-of-hospital VBAC which are additional to those associated with in-hospital VBAC;
(5) The precautions that the midwife would take if the potential client were to choose out-of-hospital VBAC, including but not limited to:
a. Use of obstetric ultrasound;
b. Close monitoring of mother and baby during active labor; and
c. Choosing a birth location no more than 20 minutes' drive from a hospital with obstetrical and anesthesia services on call 24 hours a day;
(6) The possible benefits of out-of-hospital VBAC over in-hospital VBAC whenever there is no need for transfer to a hospital, including:
a. No surgical intervention;
b. Greater freedom of movement and of positioning at time of birth; and
c. Birth in familiar and private surroundings with the support of the potential client's midwife;
(7) The possible benefits of in-hospital VBAC over out-of-hospital VBAC, including the availability in hospitals of resources not available in an out-of-hospital setting, including immediate access to surgical intervention and intensive care facilities and services; and
(8) The possibility that the potential client might need to be transferred to a hospital; and
(e) Answer the potential client's questions.
Mid 503.05 Informed Consent Form.
(a) A midwife shall review with the potential VBAC client the informed consent form entitled "New Hampshire Midwifery Council Informed Consent for an Out-of-Hospital Vaginal Birth After Cesarean Section (VBAC)".
(b) Before obtaining the potential client's signature and date of signing of the form, the midwife shall insert in the spaces provided on the form:
(1) The name of the midwife;
(2) If the birth is to take place in a freestanding birth center, the name of the birth center;
(3) The signature of the midwife and the date of her signing;
(4) The New Hampshire certification number of the midwife; and
(5) The business address of the midwife.
(c) The midwife shall arrange for a person of at least 18 years of age to:
(1) Witness the client's signing and dating of the form; and
(2) Place his or her printed name, signature and date of signing in the spaces provided on the form.
Mid 503.06 Effect of Client's Signature on Informed Consent Form. By signing the form entitled "New Hampshire Midwifery Council Informed Consent for an Out-of-Hospital Vaginal Birth After Cesarean Section (VBAC)" the client:
(a) Shall acknowledge that:
(1) She understands the information described in Mid 503.04(d);
(2) She has read the documents described in Mid 503.04(a) and (b) and understands the significance of the facts and figures in both documents;
(3) She has received and read Mid 503 and understands that the midwife practices according to its requirements; and
(4) The midwife has answered her questions to her satisfaction; and
(b) Shall consent to midwifery services by the midwife signing the form for an out-of-hospital vaginal birth after a cesarean section.
Fixed Text 6/30/03 5
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Updated 8-28-2003
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